the author of the poem was figuring that the English were too obtuse to understand his meaning, being all caught up in their 'right to rule' frame of mind?

But you've very right, translations often leave so much out, languages being what they are, a combination of words, inflections and gestures, and whatever cultural references there are of which the English of that time, and we of this, have no notion.

I'm glad my theory made some small bit of sense to you, Raj. But like so many theories, it needs something to back it up, which I cannot produce. Perhaps someone else can?