I've been hesitant to post because I know little about the pre-colonial Americas - here's my question. My (slight) readings in the conquest of Mexico and of the Inca seems to dwell almost entirely on those empires, as if the Spanish conquest of the Maya was a much smaller and less dramatic thing. Was it indeed? And if the Maya didn't put up much resistance to the Spanish, was it because their culture was (once again) in serious decline and they didn't have the strength to really fight back?

If you can recommend any reading, I too would be grateful. Thanks!